The following question refers to Section 7.4 of the 2022 AHA/ACC/HFSA Guideline for the Management of Heart Failure. The question is asked by New York Medical College medical student and CardioNerds Intern Akiva Rosenzveig, answered first by Cornell cardiology fellow and CardioNerds Ambassador Dr. Jaya Kanduri, and then by expert faculty Dr. Randall Starling.
Question:
Mr. D is a 50-year-old man who presented two months ago with palpations and new onset bilateral lower extremity swelling. Review of systems was negative for prior syncope. On transthoracic echocardiogram, he had an LVEF of 40% with moderate RV dilation and dysfunction. EKG showed inverted T-waves and low-amplitude signals just after the QRS in leads V1-V3. Ambulatory monitor revealed several episodes non-sustained ventricular tachycardia with a LBBB morphology.
He was initiated on GDMT and underwent genetic testing that revealed 2 desmosomal gene variants associated with arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC). Is the following statement true or false? “ICD implantation is inappropriate at this time because his LVEF is >35%” |
|
True | |
False |