The following question refers to Section 10.1 of the 2022 AHA/ACC/HFSA Guideline for the Management of Heart Failure.
| Mrs. Framingham is a 65-year-old woman who presents to her cardiologist’s office for stable angina and worsening dyspnea on minimal exertion. She has a history of non-insulin dependent type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. She is taking metformin, linagliptin, lisinopril, and amlodipine. Blood pressure is 119/70 mmHg. Labs are notable for a hemoglobin of 14.2 mg/dL, iron of 18 mcg/dL, ferritin 150 ug/L, transferrin saturation 15%, and normal creatine kinase. An echocardiogram shows reduced left ventricular ejection fraction of 25%. Coronary angiography shows obstructive lesions involving the proximal left anterior descending, left circumflex, and right coronary arteries. In addition to optimizing GDMT, which of the following are recommendations for changes in management? | |
| A | Anticoagulation, percutaneous revascularization, and IV iron |
| B | A change in her diabetic regimen, percutaneous revascularization, and PO iron |
| C | A change in her diabetic regimen, surgical revascularization, and IV iron |
| D | A change in her diabetic regimen, medical treatment alone for CAD, and PO iron |
| E | Anticoagulation and surgical revascularization |
The question is asked by Western Michigan University medical student and CardioNerds Intern Shivani Reddy, answered first by Boston University cardiology fellow and CardioNerds Ambassador Dr. Alex Pipilas, and then by expert faculty Dr. Ileana Pina.
© 2025 Mashup Media, LLC, a Formedics Property. All Rights Reserved.